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QUESTION 121
Examine these two statements:

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Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace?

A.    The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum
required for big file files.
B.    The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C.    Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT
tablespace.
D.    No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E.    The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the
MRKT tablespace.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
incorrect:
Not A:To create a bigfile tablespace, specify the BIGFILE keyword of the CREATE TABLESPACE statement (CREATE BIGFILE TABLESPACE …). Oracle Database automatically creates a locally managed tablespace with automatic segment space management. You can specify SIZE in kilobytes (K), megabytes (M), gigabytes (G), or terabytes (T).
Not D:Although automatic segment space management is the default for all new permanent, locally managed tablespaces, you can explicitly enable it with the SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO clause.

QUESTION 122
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?

A.    Setting a metric threshold
B.    Implementing Database Resource Manager
C.    Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D.    Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile

Answer: D
Explanation:
An Oracle session is sniped when you set the idle_time parameter to disconnect inactive sessions. (It’s only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via resources profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net expire time parameter. Here are two ways to disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile
Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time

QUESTION 123
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12′
Which two statements are true about the password tile?

A.    It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B.    It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C.    Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D.    It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER
operating system groups.
E.    It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A:When SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges are granted to a user, that user’s name and privilege information are added to the password file.
C:Creating a password file via orapwd enables remote users to connect with administrative privileges through SQL*Net.
Not E:The Oracle orapwd command line utility assists the DBA with granting SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges to other users.
*You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD. For some operating systems, you can create this file as part of your standard installation.
*ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers]
[FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
FILEName to assign to the password file. See your operating system documentation for name requirements. You must supply a complete path. If you supply only a file name, the file is written to the current directory.
ENTRIES(Optional) Maximum number of entries (user accounts) to permit in the file. FORCE(Optional) If y, permits overwriting an existing password file. IGNORECASE(Optional) If y, passwords are treated as case-insensitive. NOSYSDBA(Optional) For Data Vault installations. See the Data Vault installation guide for your platform for more information.

QUESTION 124
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.

A.    Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B.    Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C.    Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D.    Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E.    Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block
corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60) that occur
*Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP, SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
*Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
*Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
*The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and instance start
Note:
*The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup, shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect
unexpected messages and corruptions.

QUESTION 125
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A.    You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B.    Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C.    Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D.    The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E.    You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
B: Data Pump can employ multiple worker processes, running in parallel, to increase job performance.
D: For export jobs, the master table records the location of database objects within a dump file set./Export builds and maintains the master table for the duration of the job. At the end of an export job, the content of the master table is written to a file in the dump file set. /For import jobs, the master table is loaded from the dump file set and is used to control the sequence of operations for locating objects that need to be imported into the target database.

QUESTION 126
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:

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Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output?

A.    The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B.    The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C.    The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D.    The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management
(ASM).
E.    The C# # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup and shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.
D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to reduce shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read from a specific disk of a diskgroup
E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in privilege to allow the DBA full control over the database
Incorrect:
Not C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption wallet operations.
Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative privileges.

QUESTION 127
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?

A.    The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression,on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B.    Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C.    The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D.    Setting the target tablespace offline
E.    The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED

Answer: BC
Explanation:
The value for TBS_PERCENT_USED specifies the percentage of the tablespace quota when a tablespace is considered full. The value for TBS_PERCENT_FREE specifies the targeted free percentage for the tablespace. When the percentage of the tablespace quota reaches the value of TBS_PERCENT_USED, ADO begins to move data so that percent free of the tablespace quota approaches the value of TBS_PERCENT_FREE. This action by ADO is a best effort and not a guarantee.

QUESTION 128
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database?

A.    Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.
B.    Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C.    The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D.    Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
E.    Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F.    Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks’ before images, and then the redo data may be used to
roll forward to the desired flashback time.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
*Flashback Database uses its own logging mechanism, creating flashback logs and storing them in the fast recovery area(C). You can only use Flashback Database if flashback logs are available. To take advantage of this feature, you must set up your database in advance to create flashback logs.
*To enable Flashback Database, you configure a fast recovery area and set a flashback retention target. This retention target specifies how far back you can rewind a database with Flashback Database.
From that time onwards, at regular intervals, the database copies images of each altered block in every data file into the flashback logs. These block images can later be reused to reconstruct the data file contents for any moment at which logs were captured.(F)
Incorrect:
Not E:You cannot use Flashback Database alone to retrieve a dropped data file. If you flash back a database to a time when a dropped data file existed in the database, only the data file entry is added to the control file. You can only recover the dropped data file by using RMAN to fully restore and recover the data file.

QUESTION 129
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?

A.    By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B.    You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C.    You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D.    You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E.    You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Note:
*Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express) is a web-based database management tool that is built inside the Oracle Database. It supports key performance management and basic database administration functions. From an architectural perspective, EM Express has no mid-tier or middleware components, ensuring that its overhead on the database server is negligible.
Incorrect:
Not B: For one database at a time.
Not C, Not E: Enterprise Manager Database Express features can be used against non-CDBs or Oracle RAC database instances.
Not D:After the installation, your instance is started and your database is open. In the future, there will be times, perhaps for doing database maintenance or because of a power or media failure, that you shut down your database instance and later restart it.

QUESTION 130
Examine the following command;
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;
Which statement is true?

A.    Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
B.    All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
C.    All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution dates.
D.    Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
E.    All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic Repository
(ADR) home.

Answer: B
Explanation:
*By default Oracle database does not log any DDL operations performed by any user. The default settings for auditing only logs DML operations.
*Oracle 12c DDL Logging ?ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING
The first method is by using the enabling a DDL logging feature built into the database. By default it is turned off and you can turn it on by setting the value of ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter to true.
*We can turn it on using the following command. The parameter is dynamic and you can turn it on/off on the go.
SQL> alter system set ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=true;
System altered.
Elapsed: 00:00:00.05
SQL>
Once it is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.

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QUESTION 151
Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial dependencies?

A.    First normal form
B.    Second normal form
C.    Third normal form
D.    Fourth normal form

Answer: B

QUESTION 152
Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1. One-to-one
a) Teacher to students
2. One-to-many
b) Employees to Manager
3. Many-to-one
c) Person to SSN
4. Many-to-many
d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?

A.    1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B.    1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C.    1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D.    1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c

Answer: C

QUESTION 153
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?

A.    DATE
B.    NUMBER
C.    TIMESTAMP
D.    INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E.    INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

Answer: D

QUESTION 154
Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A.    Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B.    Finding the number of characters in an expression
C.    Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D.    Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true regarding the count function?

A.    The count function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types.
B.    Count (*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing null value in any of
the columns.
C.    Count (cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value
in the CUST_ID column.
D.    Count (distinct inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values
in the INV_AMT column.
E.    A select statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a where clause.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 156
Which two statements are true regarding single row functions?

A.    MOD: returns the quotient of a division
B.    TRUNC: can be used with number and date values
C.    CONCAT: can be used to combine any number of values
D.    SYSDATE: returns the database server current date and time
E.    INSTR: can be used to find only the first occurrence of a character in a string
F.    TRIM: can be used to remove all the occurrences of a character from a string

Answer: BD

QUESTION 157
You issue the following command to alter the country column in the departments table:

clip_image001
Which statement is true?

A.    It produces an error because column definitions cannot be altered to add default values.
B.    It executes successfully and all the rows that have a null value for the country column will be updated
with the value ‘USA’.
C.    It executes successfully. The modification to add the default value takes effect only from subsequent
insertions to the table.
D.    It produces an error because the data type for the column is not specified.

Answer: B

QUESTION 158
Which two statements are true regarding constraints?

A.    A foreign key cannot contain null values.
B.    A column with the unique constraint can contain null values.
C.    A constraint is enforced only for the insert operation on a table.
D.    A constraint can be disabled even if the constraint column contains data.
E.    All constraints can be defined at the column level as well as the table level.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 159
Examine the structure of the customers table:

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CUSTNO is the primary key in the table. You want to find out if any customers’ details have been entered more than once using different CUSTNO, by listing all the duplicate names.
Which two methods can you use to get the required result?

A.    Self-join
B.    Subquery
C.    Full outer-join with self-join
D.    Left outer-join with self-join
E.    Right outer-join with self-join

Answer: AB

QUESTION 160
Which statement is true regarding the default behavior of the order by clause?

A.    In a character sort, the values are case-sensitive.
B.    NULL values are not considered at all by the sort operation.
C.    Only those columns that are specified in the select list can be used in the order by clause.
D.    Numeric values are displayed from the maximum to the minimum value if they have decimal positions.

Answer: A
Character Strings and Date
s
Character strings and date values are enclosed with single quotation marks. Character values are case-sensitive and date values are format-sensitive.
The default date display format is DD-MON-RR.
QUESTION 161
Which three SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1, 890.55?

clip_image001[6]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D
E.    Option E

Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 141
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?

A.    The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace
from its current tablespace.
B.    The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace
to another tablespace.
C.    All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D.    All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information. MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

QUESTION 142
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A.    It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B.    A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C.    Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each database
instance.
D.    The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow
remote users to connect to a database instance.
E.    The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is performed by the PMON process–an instance background process–of each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server environments.

QUESTION 143
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?

A.    Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing
disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B.    Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed- up disk
group and data on the disk group.
C.    Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification,
failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D.    Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed- up disk
group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E.    Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F.    Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure
group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.

Answer: CEF
Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with all user- defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There are several options when restore the disk group
full – re-create the disk group with the exact configuration nodg – Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter newdg – Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

QUESTION 144
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?

A.    Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B.    Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C.    Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D.    Take the USERDATA tablespace offlineinACCOUNTS_PDB.

Answer: D
Explanation:
*You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 145
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A.    Oracle Data Pump
B.    Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C.    Oracle Label Security
D.    Oracle Database Vault
E.    Oracle Real Application Security

Answer: E
Explanation:
Type ofUnifiedauditing:
Standard
Fine Grained Audit
XS
Database Vault(not D)
Label Security(not C)
RMAN AUDIT(not B)
Data Pump(not A)
Note:
*Oracle 12c introduces Unified Auditing, which consolidates database audit records including :- DDL, DML, DCL
Fine Grained Auditing (DBMS_FGA)
Oracle Database Real Application Security
Oracle Recovery Manager
Oracle Database Vault
Oracle Label Security
Oracle Data Mining
Oracle Data Pump
Oracle SQL*Loader Direct Load

QUESTION 146
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1. Mount the CDB.
2. Close all the PDBs.
3. Open the database.
4. Apply the archive redo logs.
5. Restore the data file.
6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A.    6, 5, 4, 7
B.    10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C.    10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D.    10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Answer: A
Explanation:
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing…
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.
* Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs created since the backup are available.
*Open the database with theRESETLOGSoption after finishing recovery:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

QUESTION 147
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

A.    Reduced logical I/O
B.    Reduced virtual memory utilization
C.    Improved parallel Execution performance
D.    Improved Serial Execution performance
E.    Reduced physical I/O
F.    Reduced CPU utilization

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
*Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users–either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
*In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.

QUESTION 148
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?

A.    The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B.    Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C.    The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D.    The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E.    Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
A:You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at
the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
B:
Note:
*Transporting and Attaching Partitions for Data Warehousing Typical enterprise data warehouses contain one or more large fact tables. These fact tables can be partitioned by date, making the enterprise data warehouse a historical database. You can build indexes to speed up star queries. Oracle recommends that you build local indexes for such historically partitioned tables to avoid rebuilding global indexes every time you drop the oldest partition from the historical database.
D:Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables
Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER TABLE…MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.

QUESTION 149
Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?

A.    Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B.    Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C.    Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D.    Contains stack space
E.    Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/(B)UGA(User Global Area)for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where transactions interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements /(A)Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore operations, I/O server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle XA.
*Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction manager other than Oracle Database.
*UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon information, and can also contain the OLAP pool.
*Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list(not D). Oracle Database does not attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if the database instance uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in the shared pool.
*Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates buffers that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

QUESTION 150
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM” clause?

A.    to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B.    to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data environment
C.    To support PULL-based active database duplication
D.    To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E.    To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible. *RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.

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QUESTION 131
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data?

A.    Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.
B.    Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C.    Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D.    Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
You can use SQL*Loader to do the following:
/ (A)Manipulate the data before loading it, using SQL functions. / (D)Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
etc:
/ Load data into multiple tables during the same load session.
/Load data across a network. This means that you can run the SQL*Loader client on a different system from the one that is running the SQL*Loader server.
/Load data from multiple datafiles during the same load session.
/Specify the character set of the data.
/Selectively load data (you can load records based on the records’ values).
/Use the operating system’s file system to access the datafiles.
/Load data from disk, tape, or named pipe.
/Generate sophisticated error reports, which greatly aid troubleshooting.
/Load arbitrarily complex object-relational data.
/Use secondary datafiles for loading LOBs and collections.
/Use either conventional or direct path loading. While conventional path loading is very flexible, direct path loading provides superior loading performance.
Note:
*SQL*Loader loads data from external files into tables of an Oracle database. It has a powerful data parsing engine that puts little limitation on the format of the data in the datafile.

QUESTION 132
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?

A.    The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B.    The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C.    The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D.    Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Note:
*In a container architecture, the parameters for PDB will inherit from the root database. That means if statistics_level=all in the root that will cascade to the PDB databases.
You can over ride this by using Alter system set, if that parameter is pdb modifiable, there is a new column in v$system_parameter for the same.

QUESTION 133
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction?

A.    Flashback Database must be enabled.
B.    Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C.    EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
D.    Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E.    Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F.    Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
B:Specify the RETENTION GUARANTEE clause for the undo tablespace to ensure that unexpired undo data is not discarded.
C:You must have the EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package.
Note:
*Use Flashback Transaction to roll back a transaction and its dependent transactions while the database remains online. This recovery operation uses undo data to create and run thecorresponding compensating transactions that return the affected data to its original state. (Flashback Transaction is part of DBMS_FLASHBACK package.)

QUESTION 134
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with SQL:

clip_image002
There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.
What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for maintenance?

A.    Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1
will fall.
B.    Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the
CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C.    The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and rebalancing
is initiated.
D.    ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly allocated
primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E.    Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail but
queries will succeed.

Answer: B
Explanation:
CREATE DISKGROUP NORMAL REDUNDANCY
*For Oracle ASM to mirror files, specify the redundancy level as NORMAL REDUNDANCY (2-way mirroring by default for most file types) or HIGH REDUNDANCY (3-way mirroring for all files).

QUESTION 135
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statement are correct?

A.    Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B.    The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for
query execution plan.
C.    Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D.    Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E.    Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
11G has a new feature called Invisible Indexes. An invisible index is invisible to the optimizer as default. Using this feature we can test a new index without effecting the execution plans of the existing sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.

QUESTION 136
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.
Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?

A.    BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
B.    BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C.    BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D.    BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E.    BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Answer: AC
Explanation:
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
* (A)If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command.

QUESTION 137
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

A.    Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.
B.    It improves overall auditing performance.
C.    It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D.    The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E.    It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
A:Starting with 12c, Oracle has unified all of the auditing types into one single unit called Unified auditing. You don’t have to turn on or off all of the different auidting types individually and as a matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have been replaced with one single audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files table thus improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B:Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related problems seen on busy environments.
E:Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label Security, Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
*Benefits of the Unified Audit Trail
The benefits of a unified audit trail are many:
/ (B)Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is Queued Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are batched in SGA queue and is persisted in a periodic way. Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant performance improvement.
/The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization parameters that were used in previous releases
/(A)The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components of your Oracle Database installation are placed in one location and in one format, rather than your having to look in different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view enables auditors to co-relate audit information from different components. For example, if an error occurred during an INSERT statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the SQL that was executed. Oracle Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error happened because of a command rule violation or realm violation. Note that there will be two audit records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this unification in place, SYS audit records appear with AUDIT_TYPE set to Standard Audit.
/The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at the beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative users. Furthermore, you can build conditions and exclusions into your policies.
*Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle database using policies and conditions. The new policy based syntax simplifies management of auditing within the database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
*The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified management and increasing the security of audit data generated by the database.

QUESTION 138
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database 12c. Your database supports a mixed workload. During the day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations are performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs perform certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.
After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the cause of performance degradation, you want to collect basic statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.
How do you accomplish this?

A.    Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B.    Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data from
the trace file.
C.    Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D.    Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION
function, and then use the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required
information.

Answer: D
Explanation:
*Monitoring database operations
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks such as batch jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction, Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a composite business operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries associated with the business operation being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define business operations for monitoring by explicitly specifying the start and end of the operation or implicitly with tags that identify the operation.

QUESTION 139
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.

A.    Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B.    Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C.    Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring
the temporary tablespace online.
D.    Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the
database with RESETLOGS.
E.    Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 140
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

clip_image002[4]
Which two statements are true about redefining the table?

A.    All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B.    The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C.    VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D.    You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
C (not D):CONS_VPD_AUTO
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note:
*CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the “options_flag” parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo- primary keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

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QUESTION 111
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:

clip_image001
Which two statements are true?

A.    The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B.    The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C.    Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D.    Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E.    The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
*You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
* * CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause
/CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

QUESTION 112
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.
Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup.

A.    BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
B.    BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C.    BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D.    BACKUP TABLESPACE “TEMP” SECTION SIZE 10M;
E.    BACKUP TABLESPACE “UNDO” INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F.    BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G.    BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;

Answer: ACDE
Explanation:
Incorrect:
Not B:An image copy is an exact copy of a single datafile, archived redo log file, or control file. Image copies are not stored in an RMAN-specific format. They are identical to the results of copying a file with operating system commands. RMAN can use image copies during RMAN restore and recover operations, and you can also use image copies with non-RMAN restore and recovery techniques.
Not G: You cannot use section size for a full database backup.
Note:
*If you specify the SECTION SIZE parameter on the BACKUP command, then RMAN produces a multisection backup. This is a backup of a single large file, produced by multiple channels in parallel, each of which produces one backup piece. Each backup piece contains one file section of the file being backed up.
*Some points to remember about multisection backups include:

QUESTION 113
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable database (PDBs). A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped. You connect to the CDB and execute the following commands:
SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME “TO_DATE (`08/20/12′ , `MM/DD/YY’)”;
Examine following commands:
1. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;
2. ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
3. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back schema?

A.    Only 1
B.    Only 2
C.    Only 3
D.    3 and 1
E.    1 and 2

Answer: C
Explanation:
Example (see step23):
Step 1:
Run the RMAN FLASHBACK DATABASE command.
You can specify the target time by using a form of the command shown in the following examples:
FLASHBACK DATABASE TO SCN 46963;
FLASHBACK DATABASE
TO RESTORE POINT BEFORE_CHANGES;
FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIME
“TO_DATE(’09/20/05′,’MM/DD/YY’)”;
When the FLASHBACK DATABASE command completes, the database is left mounted and recovered to the specified target time.
Step 2:
Make the database available for updates by opening the database with the RESETLOGS option. If the database is currently open read-only, then execute the following commands in SQL*Plus:
SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
STARTUP MOUNT
ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

QUESTION 114
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/[email protected] as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION (`batch_job’ , FORCED_TRACKING => `Y’);
Which two statements are true?

A.    Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B.    Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C.    Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL and
CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D.    Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E.    All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C:Setting the CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS initialization parameter to DIAGNOSTIC+TUNING (default) enables monitoring of database operations. Real-Time SQL Monitoring is a feature of the Oracle Database Tuning Pack.
Note:
*The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and Real-time Database Operation Monitoring.
*(not B)BEGIN_OPERATION Function
starts a composite database operation in the current session.
/(E)FORCE_TRACKING – forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the operation starts. You can also use the string variable ‘Y’.
/ (not A)NO_FORCE_TRACKING – the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at least 5 seconds of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string variable ‘N’.

QUESTION 115
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?

A.    System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B.    Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C.    The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D.    Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E.    System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
A, Not D:In a CDB, PUBLIC is a common role. In a PDB, privileges granted locally to PUBLIC enable all local and common users to exercise these privileges in this PDB only.
C:A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:
The user is a common user whose current container is root.
The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies in all containers.
The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has been granted commonly
Incorrect:
Note:
*Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted locally.

QUESTION 116
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB) as a pluggable database (PDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
– Version:Oracle Database 12c Releases 1 64-bit
– Character set: WE8ISO8859P15
– National character set: AL16UTF16
– O/S: Oracle Linux6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
– Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
– Character set: AL32UTF8
– O/S:OracleLinux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A.    Transportable database
B.    Transportable tablespace
C.    Data Pump full export / import
D.    The DBMS_PDB package
E.    RMAN

Answer: D
Explanation:
Note:
*Generating a Pluggable Database Manifest File for the Non-CDB Execute the dbms_pdb.describe procedure to generate the manifest file.
exec dbms_pdb.describe(pdb_descr_file=>’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/noncdb/noncdb.xml’);
Shut down the noncdb instance to prepare to copy the data files in the next section.
shutdown immediate
exit

QUESTION 117
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE (`SRV1′);
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1. The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2. A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3. An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
4. The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.
5. The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?

A.    1
B.    2 and 4
C.    2 and 5
D.    3 and 4
E.    3 and 5

Answer: B
Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess tool to collect it into a single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameterservice_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled.
module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
* The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name, MODULE, and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild- card, so that not specifying an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same purpose.
*SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and ACTION globally unless an instance_name is specified.
*DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);

QUESTION 118
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are connected to the HR_PDB. You execute the following command:
SQL > CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE undotb01
DATAFILE `u01/oracle/rddb1/undotbs01.dbf’ SIZE 60M AUTOEXTEND ON;
What is the result?

A.    It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.
B.    It falls and reports an error because there can be only one undo tablespace in a CDB.
C.    It fails and reportsan error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the command.
D.    It fails and reportsan error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the command.
E.    It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Interesting behavior in 12.1.0.1 DB of creating an undo tablespace in a PDB. With the new Multitenant architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level and PDBs all share the same UNDO tablespace.
When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without returning an error.

QUESTION 119
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?

A.    They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B.    They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate
a more optimal plan.
C.    They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D.    They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the
optimizer are incorrect.
E.    They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F.    Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
During SQL execution, if a cardinality misestimate occurs, then the database creates SQL plan directives. During SQL compilation, the optimizer examines the query corresponding to the directive to determine whether missing extensions or histograms exist(D). The optimizer records any missing extensions. Subsequent DBMS_STATS calls collect statistics for the extensions.
The optimizer uses dynamic sampling whenever it does not have sufficient statistics corresponding to the directive.(B, not C)
E:Currently, the optimizer monitors only column groups. The optimizer does not create an extension on expressions.
Incorrect:
Not A:SQL plan directives are not tied to a specific SQL statement or SQL ID.
Note:
*A SQL plan directive is additional information and instructions that the optimizer can use to generate a more optimal plan. For example, a SQL plan directive can instruct the optimizer to record a missing extension.

QUESTION 120
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.
You issue this command:
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE – 5/24);
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?

A.    The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B.    The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C.    The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D.    The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E.    The database must be opened with the RESETLOGSoption after the flashback is complete.
F.    The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to
the correct SCN.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
B:The target database must be mounted with a current control file, that is, the control file cannot be a backup or have been re-created.
D: You must OPEN RESETLOGS after running FLASHBACK DATABASE. If datafiles are not flashed back because they are offline, then the RESETLOGS may fail with an error.
Note:
*RMAN uses flashback logs to undo changes to a point before the target time or SCN, and then uses archived redo logs to recover the database forward to make it consistent. RMAN automatically restores from backup any archived logs that are needed.
*SCN: System Change Number
*FLASHBACK DATABASE to One Hour Ago: Example
The following command flashes the database by 1/24 of a day, or one hour:
RMAN> FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE-1/24);

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QUESTION 101
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following command in the root container:

clip_image001
Which two statements are true?

A.    Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
B.    The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C.    The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D.    The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E.    The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not used.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
* Example,Creating Common User in a CDB
This example creates the common user c##testcdb.
CREATE USER c##testcdb IDENTIFIED BY password
DEFAULT TABLESPACE cdb_tbs
QUOTA UNLIMITED ON cdb_tbs
CONTAINER = ALL;
A common user’s user name must start with C## or c## and consist only of ASCII characters. The specified tablespace must exist in the root and in all PDBs.
* CREATE USERwith CONTAINER (optional) clause
/CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common user.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local user in the current PDB.
*CREATE USER
*The following rules apply to the current container in a CDB:
The current container can be CDB$ROOT (root) only for common users. The current container can be a particular PDB for both common users and local users.
The current container must be the root when a SQL statement includes CONTAINER = ALL.
You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
Only a common user with the commonly granted SET CONTAINER privilege can run a SQL statement that includes CONTAINER = ALL.

QUESTION 102
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE
` /mydir/rman_change_track.f’;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true?

A.    Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B.    The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C.    Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D.    More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E.    The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read
the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
*An incremental level 0 backup backs up all blocks that have ever been in use in this database. *In a cumulative level 1 backup, RMAN backs up all the blocks used since the most recent level 0 incremental backup.
*Oracle Block Change Tracking
Once enabled; this new 10g feature records the modified since last backup and stores the log of it in a block change tracking file using the CTW (Change Tracking Writer) process. During backups RMAN uses the log file to identify the specific blocks that must be backed up. This improves RMAN’s performance as it does not have to scan whole datafiles to detect changed blocks. Logging of changed blocks is performed by the CTRW process which is also responsible for writing data to the block change tracking file.

QUESTION 103
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:

clip_image001[4]
Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?

A.    A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
B.    All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen
or the application.
C.    A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D.    A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows

Answer: C

QUESTION 104
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager?

A.    Maximum Undo per consumer group
B.    Maximum Idle time
C.    Parallel server limit
D.    CPU
E.    Exadata I/O
F.    Local file system I/O

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
C:parallel_server_limit
Maximum percentage of parallel execution servers that a PDB can use.
D:utilization_limit
Resource utilization limit for CPU.

QUESTION 105
You created an encrypted tablespace:

clip_image002
You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.
Which is true about the result?

A.    It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because
the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B.    It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C.    It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the
wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D.    It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted tablespaces.

Answer: C
Explanation:
*The environment setup for tablespace encryption is the same as that for transparent data encryption. Before attempting to create an encrypted tablespace, a wallet must be created to hold the encryption key.
*Setting the tablespace master encryption key is a one-time activity. This creates the master encryption key for tablespace encryption. This key is stored in an external security module (Oracle wallet) and is used to encrypt the tablespace encryption keys.
*Before you can create an encrypted tablespace, the Oracle wallet containing the tablespace master encryption key must be open. The wallet must also be open before you can access data in an encrypted tablespace.
*Salt is a way to strengthen the security of encrypted data. It is a random string added to the data before it is encrypted, causing repetition of text in the clear to appear different when encrypted. Salt removes the one common method attackers use to steal data, namely, matching patterns of encrypted text.
*ALT | NO SALT By default the database appends a random string, called “salt,” to the clear text of the column before encrypting it. This default behavior imposes some limitations on encrypted columns:
/If you specify SALT during column encryption, then the database does not compress the data in the encrypted column even if you specify table compression for the table. However, the database does compress data in unencrypted columns and encrypted columns without the SALT parameter.

QUESTION 106
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON or-orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statements are true?

A.    Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.
B.    Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C.    Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.
D.    The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E.    Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F.    Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
Not A: Both indexes are created fine.
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML operations on the Orders table.
F: Since ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is invisible only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the query optimizer.
Not C,Not D,Not E:
* ord_customer_ix1 is an invisible index and is therefore not used by the optimizer.
* VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the optimizer. An invisible index is maintained by DML operations, but it is not be used by the optimizer during queries unless you explicitly set the parameter OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system level.
Note: Specify BITMAP to indicate that index is to be created with a bitmap for each distinct key, rather than indexing each row separately. Bitmap indexes store the rowids associated with a key value as a bitmap. Each bit in the bitmap corresponds to a possible rowid. If the bit is set, then it means that the row with the corresponding rowid contains the key value. The internal representation of bitmaps is best suited for applications with low levels of concurrent transactions, such as data warehousing.

QUESTION 107
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled?

A.    The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session
parameter.
B.    The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C.    The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D.    The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E.    The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity
tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A:Below we see a case where we set the row archival visibility parameter to “all” there by allowing us to see all of the rows that have been logically deleted:
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
We can then turn-on row invisibility back on by changing row archival visibility = “active”:
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
B:To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows, you need the following settings and parameters:
1. Create the table with the row archival clause
create table mytab (col1 number, col2 char(200)) row archival;
2. Now that the table is marked as row archival, you have two methods for removing rows, a permanent solution with the standard delete DML, plus the new syntax where you set ora_archive_state to a non-zero value:
update mytab set ora_archive_state=2 where col2=’FRED’;
3. To make “invisible rows” visible again, you simply set the rows ora_archive_state to zero:
update mytab set ora_archive_state=0 where col2=’FRED’;
Note:
* Starting in Oracle 12c, Oracle provides a new feature that allow you to “logically delete” a row in a table without physically removing the row. This effectively makes deleted rows “invisible” to all SQL and DML, but they can be revealed at any time, providing a sort of “instant” rollback method.
To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows.

QUESTION 108
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result?

A.    Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table
partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B.    Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table
partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C.    Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which
retains the existing local partitioned column.
D.    Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables,
which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E.    Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table
partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F.    Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table
partitions that return a few rows to the queries.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Note:
*Oracle 12c now provides the ability to index a subset of partitions and to exclude the others.
Local and global indexes can now be created on a subset of the partitions of a table. Partial Global indexes provide more flexibility in index creation for partitioned tables. For example, index segments can be omitted for the most recent partitions to ensure maximum data ingest rates without impacting the overall data model and access for the partitioned object.
Partial Global Indexes save space and improve performance during loads and queries. This feature supports global indexes that include or index a certain subset of table partitions or subpartitions, and exclude the others. This operation is supported using a default table indexing property. When a table is created or altered, a default indexing property can be specified for the table or its partitions.

QUESTION 109
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?

A.    It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B.    It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained rows.
C.    It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D.    It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E.    It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
The Segment Advisor generates the following types of advice:
*If the Segment Advisor determines that an object has a significant amount of free space, it recommends online segment shrink. If the object is a table that is not eligible for shrinking, as in the case of a table in a tablespace without automatic segment space management, the Segment Advisor recommends online table redefinition(C).
* (D)If the Segment Advisor encounters a table with row chaining above a certain threshold, it records that fact that the table has an excess of chained rows.

QUESTION 110
You have altered a non-unique index to be invisible to determine if queries execute within an acceptable response time without using this index.
Which two are possible if table updates are performed which affect the invisible index columns?

A.    The index remains invisible.
B.    The index is not updated by the DML statements on the indexed table.
C.    The index automatically becomes visible in order to have it updated by DML on the table.
D.    The index becomes unusable but the table is updated by the DML.
E.    The index is updated by the DML on the table.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Unlike unusable indexes, an invisible index is maintained during DML statements.
Note:
*Oracle 11g allows indexes to be marked as invisible. Invisible indexes are maintained like any other index, but they are ignored by the optimizer unless the OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameter is set to TRUE at the instance or session level. Indexes can be created as invisible by using the INVISIBLE keyword, and their visibility can be toggled using the ALTER INDEX command.

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QUESTION 91
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle?

A.    Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B.    Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C.    Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D.    Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E.    Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F.    Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Answer: ABF
Explanation:
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions.
A:Merge Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.
B:Drop Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement.
Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7;
Table altered
SQL>
Restrictions :
– You can’t drop all partitions of the table.
– If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a partitioned.

QUESTION 92
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and execute the following sequence statements:

clip_image002
What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?

A.    It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B.    It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C.    It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D.    If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable
database (PDB).

Answer: A

QUESTION 93
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:

clip_image002[4]
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?

A.    The size of the shared pool is too small.
B.    Cursors are not being shared.
C.    A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D.    There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E.    The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 94
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.

A.    SYS, SYSTEM
B.    SCOTT
C.    Only for successful executions
D.    Only for failed executions
E.    Both successful and failed executions

Answer: AE
Explanation:
*The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

QUESTION 95
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

clip_image002[6]
All users have their default set of system privileges.
For which three situations will data not be redacted?

A.    SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B.    SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C.    SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D.    SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E.    SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F.    SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Answer: ADF
Explanation:
* SYS_CONTEXT
This is a twist on the SYS_CONTEXT function as it does not use USERENV. With this usage SYS_CONTEXT queries the list of the user’s current default roles and returns TRUE if the role is granted.
Example:
SYS_CONTEXT(‘SYS_SESSION_ROLES’, ‘SUPERVISOR’)
conn scott/[email protected]
SELECT sys_context(‘SYS_SESSION_ROLES’, ‘RESOURCE’)
FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT(‘SYS_SESSION_ROLES’,’SUPERVISOR’)
———————————————
FALSE
conn [email protected] as sysdba
GRANT resource TO scott;
conn scott/[email protected]
SELECT sys_context(‘SYS_SESSION_ROLES’, ‘RESOURCE’)
FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT(‘SYS_SESSION_ROLES’,’SUPERVISOR’)
———————————————
TRUE

QUESTION 96
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled?

A.    It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message
B.    The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C.    The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D.    The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*Using any of the following DDL statements on a table enabled for Flashback Data Archive causes error ORA-55610:
ALTER TABLE statement that does any of the following:
Drops, renames, or modifies a column
Performs partition or subpartition operations
Converts a LONG column to a LOB column
Includes an UPGRADE TABLE clause, with or without an INCLUDING DATA clause DROP TABLE statement
RENAME TABLE statement
TRUNCATE TABLE statement
*After flashback archiving is enabled for a table, you can disable it only if you either have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE ADMINISTER system privilege or you are logged on as SYSDBA. While flashback archiving is enabled for a table, some DDL statements are not allowed on that table.

QUESTION 97
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor?

A.    Advising on block checksum failures
B.    Advising on inaccessible control files
C.    Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D.    Advising on empty password files
E.    Advising on invalid block header field values

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
*Data Recovery Advisor can diagnose failures such as the following:
/ (B)Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do not have the correct access permissions, have been taken offline, and so on
/ (A, E)Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values
/Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files
/I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system resource limits (for example, the number of open files)
*The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user’s request. This reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

QUESTION 98
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.
Examine the table definition:

clip_image001
Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table?

A.    The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B.    The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF
TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C.    The validtimecolumns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D.    The validtimecolumns arevisible by default when the table is described.
E.    Setting the session valid time using
DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for datamanipulation
language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
A:To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table’s definition in the case of which, the Period For clause would be creating them internally.
E:ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME Procedure
This procedure enables session level valid time flashback.

QUESTION 99
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?

A.    A DBAcancheck specific tables with the DMU
B.    The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C.    The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D.    The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E.    The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
A:In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or conversion steps of the migration process.
D:Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E:Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target character set is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.
*Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU) is a unique next-generation migration tool providing an end-to-end solution for migrating your databases from legacy encodings to Unicode.
Incorrect:
Not C:The release of Oracle Database must be 10.2.0.4, 10.2.0.5, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1, or later.

QUESTION 100
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?

A.    When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are
automatically started.
B.    When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance
is still started.
C.    When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D.    When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is
automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Previously(10g and earlier), in the case of Oracle RAC, the CRS took care of the detection and restarts. If you didn’t use RAC, then this was not an option for you. However, in this version of Oracle, you do have that ability even if you do not use RAC. The functionality ?known as Oracle Restart ?is available in Grid Infrastructure. An agent checks the availability of important components such as database, listener, ASM, etc. and brings them up automatically if they are down. The functionality is available out of the box and does not need additional programming beyond basic configuration. The component that checks the availability and restarts the failed components is called HAS (High Availability Service).
Here is how you check the availability of HAS itself (from the Grid Infrastructure home):
$ crsctl check has
CRS-4638: Oracle High Availability Services is online
Note:
*crsctl config has
Use the crsctl check has command to display the automatic startup configuration of the Oracle High Availability Services stack on the server.
*The crsctl confighascommand returns output similar to the following:
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services autostart is enabled.

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QUESTION 81
Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation?

A.    Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved
B.    Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C.    Querying tables in the data file being moved
D.    Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E.    Flashing back the database
F.    Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved

Answer: ACEF
Explanation:
Incorrect:
Not B:The online move data file operation may get aborted if the standby recovery process takes the data file offline, shrinks the file(not B), or drops the tablespace.
Not D:The online move data file operation cannot be executed on physical standby while standby recovery is running in a mounted but not open instance.
Note:
You can move the location of an online data file from one physical file to another physical file while the database is actively accessing the file. To do so, you use the SQL statement ALTER DATABASE MOVE DATAFILE.
An operation performed with the ALTER DATABASE MOVE DATAFILE statement increases the availability of the database because it does not require that the database be shut down to move the location of an online data file. In releases prior to Oracle Database 12c Release 1 (12.1), you could only move the location of an online data file if the database was down or not open, or by first taking the file offline.
You can perform an online move data file operation independently on the primary and on the standby (either physical or logical). The standby is not affected when a data file is moved on the primary, and vice versa.

QUESTION 82
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you connect RMAN.
You want to Issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;
Which task should you perform before issuing the command?

A.    Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B.    Take the user data tablespace offline.
C.    Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D.    Ensure that HR_PDB is open.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To back up tablespaces or data files:
Start RMAN and connect to a target database and a recovery catalog (if used).
If the database instance is not started, then either mount or open the database.
Run the BACKUP TABLESPACE command or BACKUP DATAFILE command at the RMAN prompt.

QUESTION 83
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements.

A.    Change in the Oracle Database version
B.    Change in your network infrastructure
C.    Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D.    Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E.    Database and operating system upgrade

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
Oracle 11g/12cmakes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
* (E)Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
* (A,C)Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
*Database initialization parameter changes.
*Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
*Refreshing optimizer statistics.
*Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 84
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command?

A.    It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
B.    It can detect corruptpfiles.
C.    It can detect corruptspfiles.
D.    It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E.    It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Oracle Database supports different techniques for detecting, repairing, and monitoring block corruption. The technique depends on whether the corruption is interblock corruption or intrablock corruption. In intrablock corruption, the corruption occurs within the block itself. This corruption can be either physical or logical. In an interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical.
Note:
*The main purpose of RMAN validation is to check for corrupt blocks and missing files. You can also use RMAN to determine whether backups can be restored. You can use the following RMAN commands to perform validation:
VALIDATE
BACKUP … VALIDATE
RESTORE … VALIDATE

QUESTION 85
You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts you to enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to specify an operating system group name.
Which statement is true?

A.    The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.
B.    The installation is being performed by the root user.
C.    The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D.    The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Note:
Providing a UNIX Group Name
If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the name of the group which should own the base directory.
You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall Oracle software. Members of this group must have write permissions to the base directory chosen.
Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.

QUESTION 86
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB).
The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
1. Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3. Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility.
5. Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.
Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A.    2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B.    1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C.    1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D.    2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E.    1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Answer: A
Explanation:
Step 0: (2) Upgrade the source database to 12c version.
Note:
Full Transportable Export/Import Support for Pluggable Databases Full transportable export/import was designed with pluggable databases as a migration destination.
You can use full transportable export/import to migrate from a non-CDB database into a PDB, from one PDB to another PDB, or from a PDB to a non-CDB. Pluggable databases act exactly like nonCDBs when importing and exporting both data and metadata.
The steps for migrating from a non-CDB into a pluggable database are as follows:
Step 1.(1)Set the user and application tablespaces in the source database to be READ ONLY Step 2.(3)Create a new PDB in the destination CDB using the create pluggable database command
Step3.(5)Copy the tablespace data files to the destination
Step4.(6)Using an account that has the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE privilege, either 6)Export from the source database using expdp with the FULL=Y TRANPSORTABLE=ALWAYS options, and import into the target database using impdp, or ?Import over a database link from the source to the target using impdp
Step 5. Perform post-migration validation or testing according your normal practice

QUESTION 87
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new PDB by using SQL Developer.
Which statement is true?

A.    The CDB must be open.
B.    The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C.    The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D.    Alt existing PDBs must be closed.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1 gigabyteand it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 88
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?

A.    It utilizes the OS file system cache.
B.    A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C.    Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D.    Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E.    Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
E:Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available).
Note:
* To enableDirect NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) librarywith one that supports Direct NFS Client.
Incorrect:
Not A:Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating system level caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks
Not B:
*To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS mounts.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP).
Not D:Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported database platforms – even those that don’t support NFS natively, like Windows.
Note:
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible overTCP/IP). Direct NFS is built directly into the database kernel – just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.
*Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than traditional NFS clients.

QUESTION 89
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

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Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality
feedback?

A.    The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is
a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B.    The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C.    The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D.    The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are
enabled.
E.    After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors
are submitted to the optimizer.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
C:During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.
D:if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back on cardinality feedback.
(not B)*Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for repeated executions.
optimizer_dynamic_sampling
optimizer_features_enable
*dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of conjunctive predicates.
Note:
*OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer.
Range of values.0 to 10
*Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to automatically improve plans for queries that are executed repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.

QUESTION 90
Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c
database instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX?

A.    Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process
B.    The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C.    Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D.    Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E.    The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.

Answer: ADE

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