[Full Version] 100% New Updated 400-251 New Questions Lead2pass Helps Pass 400-251 Successfully (181-200)
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What are two advantages of NBAR2 over NBAR? (Choose two)
A. Only NBAR2 support Flexible NetFlow for extracting and exporting fields from the packet header.
B. Only NBAR2 allows the administrator to apply individual PDL files.
C. Only NBAR2 support PDLM to support new protocals.
D. Only NBAR2 can use Sampled NetFlow to extract pre-defined packet headers for reporting.
E. Only NBAR2 supports custom protocols based on HTTP URLs.
Which two statements about Network Edge Authentication Technology (NEAT) are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires a standard ACL on the switch port
B. It conflicts with auto-configuration
C. It allows you to configure redundant links between authenticator and supplicant switches
D. It supports port-based authentication on the authenticator switch
E. It can be configured on both access ports and trunk ports
F. It can be configured on both access ports and EtherChannel ports
What are three pieces of data you should review in response to a suspected SSL MITM attack? (Choose three)
A. The IP address of the SSL server
B. The X.509 certificate of the SSL server
C. The MAC address of the attacker
D. The MAC address of the SSL server
E. The X.509 certificate of the attacker
F. The DNS name off the SSL server
From what type of server can you to transfer files to ASA’s internal memory ?
Which configuration is the correct way to change VPN key Encryption key lifetime to 10800 seconds on the key server?
Which feature can you implement to protect against SYN-flooding DoS attacks?
A. the ip verify unicast reverse-path command
B. a null zero route
C. CAR applied to icmp packets
D. TCP Intercept
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 is connected upstream to R2 and R3 at different ISPs as shown, what action must be taken to prevent Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) from dropping asymmetric traffic?
A. Configure Unicast RPF Loose Mode on R2 and R3 only.
B. Configure Unicast RPF Loose Mode on R1 only.
C. Configure Unicast RPF Strict Mode on R1 only.
D. Configure Unicast RPF Strict Mode on R1,R2 and R3.
E. Configure Unicast RPF Strict Mode on R2 and R3 only.
A. The Cisco ASA is unable to examine the TLS session.
B. The server ends the SMTP session with a QUIT command if the algorithm or key length is insufficiently secure.
C. it prevents a STARTTLS session from being established.
D. The Cisco ASA logs SMTP sessions in clear text.
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results?
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Which two statements about RFC 2827 are true? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 2827 defines egress packet filtering to safeguard against IP spoofing.
B. A corresponding practice is documented by the IEFT in BCP 38.
C. RFC 2827 defines ingress packet filtering for the multihomed network.
D. RFC 2827 defines ingress packet filtering to defeat DoS using IP spoofing.
E. A corresponding practice is documented by the IEFT in BCP 84.
From the list below, which one is the major benefit of AMP Threat GRID?
A. AMP Threat Grid collects file information from customer servers and run tests on them to see if they are infected with viruses
B. AMP Threat Grid learns ONLY from data you pass on your network and not from anything else to monitor for suspicious behavior. This makes the system much faster and efficient
C. AMP Threat Grid combines Static, and Dynamic Malware analysis with threat intelligence into one combined solution
D. AMP Threat Grid analyzes suspicious behavior in your network against exactly 400 behavioral
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each field authentication Header on the left into the order in which it appears in the header on the right
Which two statement about Infrastructure ACLs on Cisco IOS software are true? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the traffic in the router forwarding path.
B. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the traffic handled by the route processor.
C. Infrastructure ACLs are used to block-permit the transit traffic.
D. Infrastructure ACLs only protect device physical management interface.
Which three statements about SCEP are true?(Choose three)
A. It Supports online certification revocation.
B. Cryptographically signed and encrypted message are conveyed using PKCS#7.
C. The certificate request format uses PKCS#10.
D. It supports multiple cryptographic algorithms, including RSA.
E. CRL retrieval is support through CDP (Certificate Distribution Point) queries.
F. It supports Synchronous granting.
match protocol rtp payload-type “0, 1, 4 – 0x10, 10001b – 10010b, 64”
The above NBAR configuration matches RTP traffic with which payload types?
Refer to the exhibit. What type of attack is represented in the given Wireshark packet capture?
A. a SYN flood
C. a duplicate ACK
D. TCP congestion control
E. a shrew attack
What message does the TACACS+ daemon send during the AAA authentication process to request additional authentication information?
Refer to the exhibit.While troubleshooting a router issue, you executed the show ntp association command and it returned this output.
Which condition is indicated by the reach value of 357?
A. The NTP continuously received the previous 8 packets.
B. The NTP process is waiting to receive its first acknowledgement.
C. The NTP process failed to receive the most recent packet, but it received the 4 packets before the most recent packet.
D. The NTP process received only the most recent packet.
Which three IP resources is IANA responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. IP address allocation
B. detection of spoofed address
C. criminal prosecution of hackers
D. autonomous system number allocation
E. root zone management in DNS
F. BGP protocol vulnerabilities
Which three attributes may be configured as part of the Common Tasks panel of an authorization profile in the Cisco ISE solution? (Choose three.)
B. voice VLAN
C. dACL name
D. voice domain permission
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